Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 28.06.2025 10:26
There's no rule.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Your Apple Watch Is Getting a Neat New Feature That You’ll Actually Use - Gear Patrol
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Google quietly released an app that lets you download and run AI models locally - TechCrunch
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.